A question on Greek grammar

I am looking at 2 Chronicles 20:20 הַאֲמִ֥ינוּ בִנְבִיאָ֖יו וְהַצְלִֽיחוּ and wondering if the Greek follows the grammar of the Hebrew. The sequence of the verbs is hiphil imperative, then niphal, then two imperatives. English translations ignore the last imperative and translate it as a consequence of 'believing in x'. Is the Greek word form for the last verb imperative? Even in NETS 2 Suppl it is not rendered as an imperative. "Put your faith in his prophet and you will succeed". I am wondering why.

This question is here for the convenience of a link. But do answer it in the comments if you would like to.