Advertising - I am reviewing all my psalms again from the beginning. Eventually I will catch up with PoC's postings (which I am also reviewing in advance of their scheduled publication date). This week I did all of Book 1, republishing all the translations with a few little tweaks. As I work through Book 2, I notice a substantial comment on Psalm 45 which of course follows the great exilic Psalm 44. Why is it that in the Psalter, this love marriage happens within the immediate context of exile? Is it an accident? Does Paul take the image of exile (he cites Psalm 44) lightly?
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