I came across this translation of the first verse.
O praise the Lord, laud ye the Name of the Lord * praise it, O ye servants of the Lord;
Besides being gross, it is simply wrong. A few verses later, political correctness aside, the pronoun him is attributed to Yahweh.
O praise the Lord, for the Lord is gracious * O sing praises unto his Name, for it is lovely.
This arises from people reading English and trying to be politically correct. But there is no need for the pronoun since the Hebrew has no object in this case anyway.
I note that the KJV adds pronouns as objects when they are not in the text. Psalms 116 is another that stands out in my memory.
אָ֭הַבְתִּי כִּֽי־יִשְׁמַ֥ע ׀ יְהוָ֑ה
אֶת־ק֝וֹלִ֗י תַּחֲנוּנָֽי
This is tricky because the atnah produces a gap in the middle of the sentence -- for aural and dramatic interest in the poetry.
I love, for Yahweh heard,
the voice of my supplication.
The music works just fine with the gap.
The first example above (135:1) is equally easily rendered without the object. The second praise is simply a command to "the servants of the Lord".
Hallelu Yah. Praise the name of Yahweh.
Praise O servants of Yahweh,
Verse 3 also does not require the imagined object.
Hallelu Yah, for Yahweh is good.
Sing a psalm to his name for pleasure.
Is it only choristers who can understand that such service is pleasure -- and that pleasure is good.
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